Uma
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narahari
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It may be defined as the opportunity cost in terms of dividends foregone by/withheld from the equity shareholders. i.e. in other words, if the company would have given Reserves as Dividends at what rate of return the same would have been invested by the shareholder. So it envisages opportunity cost of money.
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veeru
answered
COST OF RETAINED EARNINGS
It may be defined as the opportunity cost in terms of dividends foregone
by/withheld from the equity shareholders. i.e. in other words, if the company
would have given Reserves as Dividends at what rate of return the same would
have been invested by the shareholder. So it envisages opportunity cost of
money.
rohit awasthi
answered
Dear Friend > Cost of Retained Earning “ The residual of an firm's earnings over expenditures, including taxes and dividends, that are reinvested in its business. The cost of these funds is always lower than the cost of new equity capital, due to taxes and transactions costs.” In accounting, retained earnings refers to the portion of net income which is retained by the corporation rather than distributed to its owners as dividends. http://image.slidesharecdn.com/costofcapital-110427090145-phpapp01/95/cost-of-capital-16-728.jpg?cb=1303895895 Cost of Retained Earnings – Constant Dividend Growth Model = rs = D1/P0 + g Cost of Retained Earnings – Security Market Line Approach rs = rF + b(rM - rF). Thanks
lochan
answered
COST OF RETAINED EARNINGS
It may be defined as the opportunity cost in terms of dividends foregone
by/withheld from the equity shareholders. i.e. in other words, if the company
would have given Reserves as Dividends at what rate of return the same would
have been invested by the shareholder. So it envisages opportunity cost of
money.
Cost of retained earnings is the same as the cost of an equivalent fully
subscribed issue of additional shares, which is measured by the cost of equity
capital.
Retained earnings are “dividends withheld”, that is, if were in the hands of the
investors (shareholders) they could have earned on these by investing
somewhere else. The assumption is that the firm is earning “at least equal to ke
on these retained earnings. So the cost kr is approximately equal to ke (a little
less than ke because of floatation costs are not there, kr < ke)
Thanks
